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PeterC's avatar

Hi James, just found this substack!

"In John’s Passion, Jesus dies a death which is substitutionary, penal, and propitiatory--a death which fully expends the wrath of God so it might not afflict his people."

If this is the case, how do you understand the destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple in AD70? Many Christians believe it was God's judgement on that generation for their treatment and killing of the Messiah. Was that not God's wrath? Or when you refer to 'his people' do you not mean 'Israel' as it was then, but rather only true believers in Jesus the Messiah?

Also, if God's wrath is 'spent' on the cross, do you believe God no longer punishes Christians or anyone else for their sins during this life?

Thanks, Peter

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Kiwismitho's avatar

Hi James. You mentioned on Twitter that you could send me your paper on the atonement. I had mentioned I was a 'fan' of N T Wright's point of view on this. Thanks! asmitho@gmail.com

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